Because we are indifferent between who has the 2 and who has the 0
Perhaps I’m missing something, but where does this claim come from? It doesn’t seem to follow from the three starting assumptions.
Yeah, it doesn’t (obviously) follow. See the appendix on equality. It made the proof simpler and I thought most readers would not find it objectionable, but if you have a suggestion for an alternate simple proof I would love to hear it!
Perhaps I’m missing something, but where does this claim come from? It doesn’t seem to follow from the three starting assumptions.
Yeah, it doesn’t (obviously) follow. See the appendix on equality. It made the proof simpler and I thought most readers would not find it objectionable, but if you have a suggestion for an alternate simple proof I would love to hear it!