Would be interested to hear from those who’ve disagreed with this, since I think I’m just pointing out a mathematical mistake? Interested to be corrected if I’ve got something wrong.
Perhaps would help to give some example numbers. Suppose someone assigns, for an insect:
P(react vigorously given pain experienced) = 1
P(react vigorously given no pain experienced) = 0.5
(These numbers seem defensible to me)
This gives you a Bayes factor of 2, when updating your probability that pain is experienced after seeing evidence that insects react vigorously to some negative stimulus. This is not a ‘strong’ update.
Would be interested to hear from those who’ve disagreed with this, since I think I’m just pointing out a mathematical mistake? Interested to be corrected if I’ve got something wrong.
Perhaps would help to give some example numbers. Suppose someone assigns, for an insect:
P(react vigorously given pain experienced) = 1
P(react vigorously given no pain experienced) = 0.5
(These numbers seem defensible to me)
This gives you a Bayes factor of 2, when updating your probability that pain is experienced after seeing evidence that insects react vigorously to some negative stimulus. This is not a ‘strong’ update.