For all the analyses relying on pain intensities I am aware of, from AIM and RP, the ratio between the intensity of a pain of a given category and that of another is the same across species. I have now asked Cynthia Schuck-Paim, who is the research director of WFP (the organisation defining the pain intensities).
Cynthia has just clarified the answer to both of the following questions can be “yes”.
If I understand correctly, even if it was known with certainty that:
1 h of disabling pain in humans was 10 times as bad as 1 h of hurtful pain in humans, 1 h of disabling pain in shrimps could be more/less than 10 times as bas as 1 h of hurtful pain in shrimps? I think you are implying it could indeed be more/less than 10 times as bad.
1 h of disabling pain in humans was 10 times as bad as 1 h of hurtful pain in humans, 10 h of disabling pain in humans could be more/less than 10 times as bad as 10 h of hurtful pain in humans? I think you are implying it could indeed be more/less than 10 times as bad.
I think my assumption of constant ratios within and across species still makes sense as the most agnostic assumption.
Cynthia has just clarified the answer to both of the following questions can be “yes”.
I think my assumption of constant ratios within and across species still makes sense as the most agnostic assumption.