What exchange rate could you infer from the happiest N particles and the most suffering N particles? I feel like a step is missing. Are you assuming they’re equally great in absolute value?
I consider it an open question how functionally similar suffering and pleasure are, e.g. if the functions for suffering are all identical or opposite/symmetric to the functions for pleasure, in bijection, even in minds optimized for each.
I’m merely claiming that statements like “one unit of suffering is worth two units of happiness” are coherent because “unit” can be defined in reference to particles. I’m not claiming that any particular ratio is correct, only that it’s coherent to talk about ratios other than 1:1.
What exchange rate could you infer from the happiest N particles and the most suffering N particles? I feel like a step is missing. Are you assuming they’re equally great in absolute value?
Related:
https://reflectivedisequilibrium.blogspot.com/2012/03/are-pain-and-pleasure-equally-energy.html?m=1
https://www.simonknutsson.com/reply-to-shulmans-are-pain-and-pleasure-equally-energy-efficient/
I consider it an open question how functionally similar suffering and pleasure are, e.g. if the functions for suffering are all identical or opposite/symmetric to the functions for pleasure, in bijection, even in minds optimized for each.
Thanks for the question!
I’m merely claiming that statements like “one unit of suffering is worth two units of happiness” are coherent because “unit” can be defined in reference to particles. I’m not claiming that any particular ratio is correct, only that it’s coherent to talk about ratios other than 1:1.