The growth rate of output per person definitely has been roughly constant in developed countries (esp. the US) in the 20th century. In the doc, I’m instead talking about the growth rate of total output, globally, from about 1600 to 1950.
(So the summary may give the wrong impression. I ought to have suggested a tweak to make it clearer.)
Although, is it the case that growth(GDP) increased during the modern era (ie, growth(population) has been rising)? My recollection is that the IR was a structural break, with g jumping from 0.5% to 2% (or something).
The world GDP growth rate also seems to have been increasing during the immediate lead-up to the Industrial Revolution, as well as during the following century, although the exact numbers are extremely uncertain. The growth rate most likely stabilized around the middle of the 20th century.
The growth rate of output per person definitely has been roughly constant in developed countries (esp. the US) in the 20th century. In the doc, I’m instead talking about the growth rate of total output, globally, from about 1600 to 1950.
(So the summary may give the wrong impression. I ought to have suggested a tweak to make it clearer.)
Right, growth(GDP) > growth(GDP per capita) when growth(population)>0.
Although, is it the case that growth(GDP) increased during the modern era (ie, growth(population) has been rising)? My recollection is that the IR was a structural break, with g jumping from 0.5% to 2% (or something).
The world GDP growth rate also seems to have been increasing during the immediate lead-up to the Industrial Revolution, as well as during the following century, although the exact numbers are extremely uncertain. The growth rate most likely stabilized around the middle of the 20th century.