So, on the Shapely value approach, we would ignore the probability of different states of affairs when deciding what to do? This seems wrong. Also, the only time the discount would be the same is when the probability of counterfactual impact happens to equal the discount applied according to the shapely value. This would only happen coincidentally: e.g. the chance of being decisive could be 1⁄1,000 and the shapely discount 1/1m.
So, on the Shapely value approach, we would ignore the probability of different states of affairs when deciding what to do? This seems wrong. Also, the only time the discount would be the same is when the probability of counterfactual impact happens to equal the discount applied according to the shapely value. This would only happen coincidentally: e.g. the chance of being decisive could be 1⁄1,000 and the shapely discount 1/1m.