OK, thanks. I’m not sure how you calculated that but I’ll take your word for it. My hypothetical observer is seeming pretty silly then—I guess I had been thinking that the growth prior to 1700 was fast but not much faster than it had been at various times in the past, and in fact much slower than it had been in 1350 (I had discounted that, but if we don’t, then that supports my point) so a hypothetical observer would be licensed to discount the growth prior to 1700 as maybe just catch-up + noise. But then by the time the data for 1700 comes in, it’s clear a fundamental change has happened. I guess the modern-day parallel would be if a pandemic or economic crisis depresses growth for a bit, and then there’s a sustained period of growth afterwards in which the economy doubles in 7 years, and there’s all sorts of new technology involved but it’s still respectable for economists to say it’s just catch-up growth + noise, at least until year 5 or so of the 7-year doubling. Is this fair?
There definitely wasn’t 0.14% growth over 5000 years. But according to my data there was 12% in 700, 0.23% in 900, 11% in 1000 and 1100, 47% in 1350, and 21% in 1400. So 14% fits right in; 14% over a 500-year period is indeed more impressive, but not that impressive when there are multiple 100-year periods with higher growth than that worldwide (and thus presumably longer periods with higher growth, in cherry-picked locations around the world)
Anyhow, the important thing is how much we disagree, and maybe it’s not much. I certainly think the scenario you sketch is plausible, but I think “faster” scenarios, and scenarios with more of a disconnect between GWP and PONR, are also plausible. Thanks to you I am updating towards thinking the historical case of IR is less support for that second bit than I thought.
OK, thanks. I’m not sure how you calculated that but I’ll take your word for it. My hypothetical observer is seeming pretty silly then—I guess I had been thinking that the growth prior to 1700 was fast but not much faster than it had been at various times in the past, and in fact much slower than it had been in 1350 (I had discounted that, but if we don’t, then that supports my point) so a hypothetical observer would be licensed to discount the growth prior to 1700 as maybe just catch-up + noise. But then by the time the data for 1700 comes in, it’s clear a fundamental change has happened. I guess the modern-day parallel would be if a pandemic or economic crisis depresses growth for a bit, and then there’s a sustained period of growth afterwards in which the economy doubles in 7 years, and there’s all sorts of new technology involved but it’s still respectable for economists to say it’s just catch-up growth + noise, at least until year 5 or so of the 7-year doubling. Is this fair?
There definitely wasn’t 0.14% growth over 5000 years. But according to my data there was 12% in 700, 0.23% in 900, 11% in 1000 and 1100, 47% in 1350, and 21% in 1400. So 14% fits right in; 14% over a 500-year period is indeed more impressive, but not that impressive when there are multiple 100-year periods with higher growth than that worldwide (and thus presumably longer periods with higher growth, in cherry-picked locations around the world)
Anyhow, the important thing is how much we disagree, and maybe it’s not much. I certainly think the scenario you sketch is plausible, but I think “faster” scenarios, and scenarios with more of a disconnect between GWP and PONR, are also plausible. Thanks to you I am updating towards thinking the historical case of IR is less support for that second bit than I thought.