hello. The causal evidence was the claim that we would expect people with more income to buy more basic private goods which improve their private welfare.
This could go the other way also.
Education can cause reduced disease risk burden, education allows people to participate in industrial economy, and therefore increases money.
How do we know that when countries transform from illiterate to educated. It is an effect of money, and not government policy?
How exactly does the transformation happen?
Suppose there were no public schools in the USA or UK would the population be able to buy education? Would the country be more or less educated?
hello. The causal evidence was the claim that we would expect people with more income to buy more basic private goods which improve their private welfare.
This could go the other way also. Education can cause reduced disease risk burden, education allows people to participate in industrial economy, and therefore increases money.
How do we know that when countries transform from illiterate to educated. It is an effect of money, and not government policy?
How exactly does the transformation happen? Suppose there were no public schools in the USA or UK would the population be able to buy education? Would the country be more or less educated?