The definition used here (“according to which (very roughly) you should do whatever has the best consequences, i.e., whatever produces the most value in the world”) punts all the complexity into the definition of “value in the world”, but that is entirely subjective and can be completely partial, as it is for many if not most people.
It seems this entire discussion is suffering from the confusion of Act Consequentialism with something more specific and impartial like a version of Utilitarianism. Or at the very least an underdefined use of terms like “value in the world”.
Why does Act Consequentialism imply impartiality?
The definition used here (“according to which (very roughly) you should do whatever has the best consequences, i.e., whatever produces the most value in the world”) punts all the complexity into the definition of “value in the world”, but that is entirely subjective and can be completely partial, as it is for many if not most people.
It seems this entire discussion is suffering from the confusion of Act Consequentialism with something more specific and impartial like a version of Utilitarianism. Or at the very least an underdefined use of terms like “value in the world”.
I think we’re taking impartiality for granted here. Consequentialism doesn’t imply impartiality.
Then that’s begging the question. The Alienation Objection isn’t to Act Consequentialism at all, but to taking impartiality for granted.