I guess I don’t understand why w > x > y > z implies w—y = x—y iff w—x = y—z. Sorry if this is a standard result I’ve forgotten, but at first glance it’s not totally obvious to me.
Maybe it gets clearer if you compare the relative values of the 4 variables.w−y corresponds to the benfits of RXR, x−z also corresponds to the benefits of RXR. But maybe I was not precise enough: The equivalence does not follow only from w>x>y>z, we also need to take into account the definitions of the 4 variables. Do you see what I mean?
I guess I don’t understand why w > x > y > z implies w—y = x—y iff w—x = y—z. Sorry if this is a standard result I’ve forgotten, but at first glance it’s not totally obvious to me.
Maybe it gets clearer if you compare the relative values of the 4 variables.w−y corresponds to the benfits of RXR, x−z also corresponds to the benefits of RXR. But maybe I was not precise enough: The equivalence does not follow only from w>x>y>z, we also need to take into account the definitions of the 4 variables.
Do you see what I mean?