Thanks for your message David. I think this probably depends on your definition of ‘discrimination’ - in SJ language, discrimination is typically something that happens at a systemic, rather than an individual level. That is to say, a set of policies that systematically disadvantage a particular group can still be discrimination if they reflect a prevailing system in which that group is disadvantaged. This can be true even if there is no bad intent on the part of individuals.
I think this broader definition is not always helpful, particularly because (a) it often fuels controversy to describe such policies as discriminatory, and (b) it is not always clear that any given policy is actually a part of a system of discrimination. That’s why I’ve tried to use ‘disadvantage’ in most of the post, which is a less loaded term. Nonetheless, I feel it’s the most appropriate term to use in the DeGraffenreid context, as the originators of Intersectionality Theory describe the case in terms of discrimination.
Is there a way you feel I could make this more clear?
You’re going to get downvoted because EA has become increasingly infested with SJ types who fail to understand that inequality or variance isn’t necessarily evidence of systemic discrimination. I really hate how that dogma has come to become unquestionable and immaculate.
Disadvantage is a lot less dramatic of a claim and much easier to demonstrate and prove and I applaud you for speaking up for better epistemics.
Thanks for your message David. I think this probably depends on your definition of ‘discrimination’ - in SJ language, discrimination is typically something that happens at a systemic, rather than an individual level. That is to say, a set of policies that systematically disadvantage a particular group can still be discrimination if they reflect a prevailing system in which that group is disadvantaged. This can be true even if there is no bad intent on the part of individuals.
I think this broader definition is not always helpful, particularly because (a) it often fuels controversy to describe such policies as discriminatory, and (b) it is not always clear that any given policy is actually a part of a system of discrimination. That’s why I’ve tried to use ‘disadvantage’ in most of the post, which is a less loaded term. Nonetheless, I feel it’s the most appropriate term to use in the DeGraffenreid context, as the originators of Intersectionality Theory describe the case in terms of discrimination.
Is there a way you feel I could make this more clear?
You’re going to get downvoted because EA has become increasingly infested with SJ types who fail to understand that inequality or variance isn’t necessarily evidence of systemic discrimination. I really hate how that dogma has come to become unquestionable and immaculate.
Disadvantage is a lot less dramatic of a claim and much easier to demonstrate and prove and I applaud you for speaking up for better epistemics.