Thanks Phil—appreciate the response! On #1, I think I get it though it’s a bit counterintuitive. I take it that the proposition is that permanent (or at least long-term) reduction in x-risk has a sort of ‘compounding’ impact on expected value, since it reduces risk each year, and therefore would compete with patient investing, but short-term reductions in risk don’t have that same ‘compounding’ benefit and therefore don’t compete in the same way with the interest rate (which is assumed to be increase with and therefore be higher than the x-risk rate). And #2 and #3, I think I follow too.
Some interesting ideas to think about… Looking forward to seeing your further work in this area.
Thanks Phil—appreciate the response! On #1, I think I get it though it’s a bit counterintuitive. I take it that the proposition is that permanent (or at least long-term) reduction in x-risk has a sort of ‘compounding’ impact on expected value, since it reduces risk each year, and therefore would compete with patient investing, but short-term reductions in risk don’t have that same ‘compounding’ benefit and therefore don’t compete in the same way with the interest rate (which is assumed to be increase with and therefore be higher than the x-risk rate). And #2 and #3, I think I follow too.
Some interesting ideas to think about… Looking forward to seeing your further work in this area.
Cheers