I haven’t read the articles you linked, but I’m wondering:
(a) If the outcome of a CEA is a probability distribution like the one below, we can see that there is a 5% probability that it costs less than $1,038 to avert a death, 30.1% probability that it costs less than $2,272, etc. Isn’t that the same?
(b)
sometimes the most cost-effective intervention has lower expected value than an alternative, because the distribution of benefits is skewed.
Is that because of the effect that I call “Optimizer’s curse” in my article?
Please don’t feel like you have to answer if you don’t know the answers off the top of your head or it’s complex to explain. I don’t really need these answers for anything, I’m just curious. And if I did need the answers, I could find them in the links :)
I haven’t read the articles you linked, but I’m wondering:
(a) If the outcome of a CEA is a probability distribution like the one below, we can see that there is a 5% probability that it costs less than $1,038 to avert a death, 30.1% probability that it costs less than $2,272, etc. Isn’t that the same?
(b)
Is that because of the effect that I call “Optimizer’s curse” in my article?
Please don’t feel like you have to answer if you don’t know the answers off the top of your head or it’s complex to explain. I don’t really need these answers for anything, I’m just curious. And if I did need the answers, I could find them in the links :)