Do you think your argument also works against Railton’s moral naturalism, or does my One Compelling Axiology (OTA) proposal introduce something that breaks the idea? The way I meant it, OTA is just a more extreme version of Railton’s view.
I think I can see what you’re pointing to though. I wrote:
Note that this proposal makes no claims about the linguistic level: I’m not saying that ordinary moral discourse let’s us define morality as convergence in people’s moral views after philosophical reflection under ideal conditions. (This would be a circular definition.) Instead, I am focusing on the aspect that such convergence would be practically relevant: [...]
So yes, this would be a bad proposal for what moral discourse is about. But it’s meant like this: Railton claims that morality is about doing things that are “good for others from an impartial perspective.” I like this and wanted to work with that, so I adopt this assumption, and further add that I only want to call a view moral realism if “doing what is good for others from an impartial perspective” is well-specified. Then I give some account of what it would mean for it to be well-specified.
In my proposal, moral facts are not defined as that which people arrive at after reflection. Moral facts are still defined as the same thing Railton means. I’m just adding that maybe there are no moral facts in the way Railton means if we introduce the additional requirement that (strong) underdetermination is not allowed.
Do you think your argument also works against Railton’s moral naturalism, or does my One Compelling Axiology (OTA) proposal introduce something that breaks the idea? The way I meant it, OTA is just a more extreme version of Railton’s view.
I think I can see what you’re pointing to though. I wrote:
So yes, this would be a bad proposal for what moral discourse is about. But it’s meant like this: Railton claims that morality is about doing things that are “good for others from an impartial perspective.” I like this and wanted to work with that, so I adopt this assumption, and further add that I only want to call a view moral realism if “doing what is good for others from an impartial perspective” is well-specified. Then I give some account of what it would mean for it to be well-specified.
In my proposal, moral facts are not defined as that which people arrive at after reflection. Moral facts are still defined as the same thing Railton means. I’m just adding that maybe there are no moral facts in the way Railton means if we introduce the additional requirement that (strong) underdetermination is not allowed.
Yes I think it applies to pretty much any other kind of naturalism as well. At least, any that I have seen.