To clarify what I edited in, I mean that, without better evidence/argument, the effect could be arbitrarily small but still nonzero. What reason do we have to believe it’s at least 1%, say, other than very subjective priors?
I agree that analysis of new evidence should help.
I’d point to the literature on time lagged correlations between household members emotional states that I quickly summarised in the last installment of the household spillover discussion. I think it implies a household spillover of 20%. But I don’t know if this type of data should over- or -underestimate the spillover ratio relative to what we’d find in RCTs. I know I’m being really slippery about this, but the Barker et al. analysis stuff so far makes me think it’s larger than that.
To clarify what I edited in, I mean that, without better evidence/argument, the effect could be arbitrarily small but still nonzero. What reason do we have to believe it’s at least 1%, say, other than very subjective priors?
I agree that analysis of new evidence should help.
I’d point to the literature on time lagged correlations between household members emotional states that I quickly summarised in the last installment of the household spillover discussion. I think it implies a household spillover of 20%. But I don’t know if this type of data should over- or -underestimate the spillover ratio relative to what we’d find in RCTs. I know I’m being really slippery about this, but the Barker et al. analysis stuff so far makes me think it’s larger than that.