The AlphaArchitect funds are more expensive than Vanguard funds, but they’re just as cheap after adjusting for factor exposure.
Do you happen to have the numbers available that you used for this calculation? Would be curious to see how you’re doing the adjustment for factor exposure.
I’m not sure how to calculate it precisely, I think you’d want to run a regression where the independent variable is the value factor and the dependent variable is the fund or strategy being considered. But roughly speaking, a Vanguard value fund holds the 50% cheapest stocks (according to the value factor), while QVAL and IVAL hold the 5% cheapest stocks, so they are 10x more concentrated, which loosely justifies a 10x higher expense ratio. Although 10x higher concentration doesn’t necessarily mean 10x more exposure to the value factor, it’s probably substantially less than that.
I just ran a couple of quick regressions using Ken French data, and it looks like if you buy the top half of value stocks (size-weighted) while shorting the market, that gives you 0.76 exposure to the value factor, and buying the top 10% (equal-weighted) while shorting the market gives you 1.3 exposure (so 1.3 is the slope of a regression between that strategy and the value factor). Not sure I’m doing this right, though.
To look at it another way, the top-half portfolio described above had a 5.4% annual return (gross), while the top-10% portfolio returned 12.8% (both had similar Sharpe ratios). Note that most of this difference comes from the fact that the first portfolio is size-weighted and the second is equal-weighted; I did it that way because most big value funds are size-weighted, while QVAL/IVAL are equal-weighted.
(These numbers are actually more similar than I expected—I would have predicted the top-10% portfolio to have something like 5x more value factor loading than the top-half portfolio, not 2x.)
Do you happen to have the numbers available that you used for this calculation? Would be curious to see how you’re doing the adjustment for factor exposure.
I’m not sure how to calculate it precisely, I think you’d want to run a regression where the independent variable is the value factor and the dependent variable is the fund or strategy being considered. But roughly speaking, a Vanguard value fund holds the 50% cheapest stocks (according to the value factor), while QVAL and IVAL hold the 5% cheapest stocks, so they are 10x more concentrated, which loosely justifies a 10x higher expense ratio. Although 10x higher concentration doesn’t necessarily mean 10x more exposure to the value factor, it’s probably substantially less than that.
I just ran a couple of quick regressions using Ken French data, and it looks like if you buy the top half of value stocks (size-weighted) while shorting the market, that gives you 0.76 exposure to the value factor, and buying the top 10% (equal-weighted) while shorting the market gives you 1.3 exposure (so 1.3 is the slope of a regression between that strategy and the value factor). Not sure I’m doing this right, though.
To look at it another way, the top-half portfolio described above had a 5.4% annual return (gross), while the top-10% portfolio returned 12.8% (both had similar Sharpe ratios). Note that most of this difference comes from the fact that the first portfolio is size-weighted and the second is equal-weighted; I did it that way because most big value funds are size-weighted, while QVAL/IVAL are equal-weighted.
(These numbers are actually more similar than I expected—I would have predicted the top-10% portfolio to have something like 5x more value factor loading than the top-half portfolio, not 2x.)