Why did you take the mean $/QALY instead of mean QALY/$ (which expected value analysis would suggest)? When I do that I get $5000/QALY as the mean.
Because I didn’t think about it and I liked having numbers which were more interpretable, e.g. 3.4*10^-6 QALYs/$ is to me less interpretable that $290k/QALY, and same with 7.7 * 10^-4 vs $1300/QALY.
Another poster reached out and mentioned he was writing a post about this particular mistake, so I thought I’d leave the example up.
Another poster reached out and mentioned he was writing a post about this particular mistake, so I thought I’d leave the example up.
Please feel free to edit it, it will take me a while to actually post anything, I’m still thinking about how to handle this issue in the general case. I think you can keep the interpretability by doing mean(cost)/mean(QALY), but I still don’t know how to handle the probability distribution.
I think by not editing it we risk other people copying the mistake
Because I didn’t think about it and I liked having numbers which were more interpretable, e.g. 3.4*10^-6 QALYs/$ is to me less interpretable that $290k/QALY, and same with 7.7 * 10^-4 vs $1300/QALY.
Another poster reached out and mentioned he was writing a post about this particular mistake, so I thought I’d leave the example up.
Please feel free to edit it, it will take me a while to actually post anything, I’m still thinking about how to handle this issue in the general case. I think you can keep the interpretability by doing mean(cost)/mean(QALY), but I still don’t know how to handle the probability distribution.
I think by not editing it we risk other people copying the mistake
Done.